IAC Forums
Chew the Fat! => IAC & Master Solvers Club => Topic started by: Masse24 on May 15, 2020, 07:18:48 PM
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JULY 2020 MSC
Deadline: June 10 at 9:00 a.m. (ET)
Submit your June MSC responses here: The Bridge World - MASTER SOLVERS CLUB (https://www.bridgeworld.com/indexphp.php?page=/pages/msc/mscentercontest.html)
BWS 2017 System: BWS 2017 (https://www.bridgeworld.com/indexphp.php?page=/pages/readingroom/bws/bwscompletesystem.html)
BWS 2017 POLLS, CHANGES AND ADDITIONS: BWS 2017 - Polls, Changes, and Additions (https://www.bridgeworld.com/indexphp.php?page=/pages/readingroom/bws/bwspolls2017.html)
- Bridge World Standard 2017 (BWS or BWS2017) is effective beginning with the January 2017 Master Solvers' Club problems. This page shows (1) the results of the panelist polls that were used to adjust the system; and (2) the changes in and the additions to Bridge World Standard 2001 (BWS2001) that were made.
In the listings of the questions and answers, an asterisk indicates the BWS2001 agreement; the proportion of the expert votes for each item, rounded to the nearest percent, is shown in brackets.
IAC Forum MSC Scores (https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1whamPj4_SDF3cbYUdGL9dpMX23tpwzUJzUvNoVmip_w/edit?usp=sharing)
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I'll offer a some thoughts on Bart and Problem D. Here’s BWS:
Passed-Hand Situations: These methods apply to responding to a major-suit opening by a passed hand:
(a) one notrump is semi-forcing (6-12 points);
(b) two clubs is a strong raise (a hand too strong for a single raise, but unsuited to a higher bid);
(c) three clubs is natural, similar to two diamonds but with long clubs;
(d) a jump-shift other than three clubs is a strong raise with length in the suit bid;
(e) a double jump-shift is a splinter raise.
If N has 4 hearts, there’s no problem whether I respond 2 !D or 1N, because p simply re-bids 2 !H. If N has 6 spades, we’re also happy: N re-bids 2 !S (even if I’ve taken too many pills, I’m not likely to bid 2N over that … I don’t think).
What happens if N has 3 or fewer hearts and only 5 spades? After a 1N response N with 12/13 HCP will surely pass, as the most I can have is 11 HCP. The options given for this problem mean N must have 14 (or good 13) HCP. For N with 15+ HCP, it probably doesn’t matter how I respond. The problem seems to boil down to “what is best when N has 13/14 HCP”?
1 !S – 1N – 2 !C heralds Bart’s arrival. I’m going to be squirming between 3 !D (hoping that N is 5332) and 2N (in case N is 5xx4). Because of the uncertainty over clubs, I’d probably choose 3 !D. At least we’re not vulnerable.
Is the situation better over 1 !S – 2 !D? With a 5332 hand opposite a passed partner, N can pass. So, that’s an improvement. If N is 5xx4, he’s the one squirming (that’s an improvement too) but he’s not squirming much. With 3 diamonds he can pass (and perhaps also with 2 good diamonds), otherwise 2N will prevail. I then know that NT is a better choice than diamonds and can pass. That all seems clearer and safer.
My instinct is to keep Bart socially distanced and respond 2 !D.
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The July set caucht me saying to myself "What ELSE?" about 5 times. Those answers i will tack on "**" at the end. Then in a couple weeks i will change four of them and be wrong every time .
A:>> pass **
B:>> 1NT **
C:>> 1NT ?
D:>> b2 **
E:>> pass
F:>> pass **
G:>> 3 Dia **
H:>> Club 2
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I only agree with two out of those eight answers - and only one of those
two was a "what else" one. I'm still waiting to hear some discussion around
problem A before submitting my answers because I'm worried West might
be talking us out of something. How can partner have spades well stopped
when I hold AQ42? I'm considering bidding 4♣, 4♠, or 6NT - but never passing
when partner has at least 13 points opposite my 17.
Here are some what else's on the other problems:
B - redouble with my tens bringing my hand up to ten points (not 1NT when I
lack stoppers in both majors).
F - double and probably pass any bid partner makes.
G - 3♦ and pass 3♠ if that's all partner can do, must be better than defending
against 3♣.
Cheers,
Oliver
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I suppose I need to start thinking about this. So, s usual, I start with A.
I would have opened 1 !H if the !C A had been the !C 2. So partner thinks 3NT is a reasonable contract even if I had less than I have, but still he is expecting something from me.
I suppose he has some decent diamonds. Lho and I have at least 9 spades, so partner and Rho have at most four, guaranteeing that they have at they, pard and Rho, have an at least an 8 card fit in at least one suit. I suppose it's diamonds. If I thought diamonds could be run without loss then I might be thinking of a slam, but running the diamonds seems optimistic. If partner has !D AKJTx then maybe I can play Lho for !D Qxx, But if Lho has !D Qx then we are taking four diamonds not five.
All in all, it seems slam, any slam, is optimistic. I am about an A better than I need to be opening the hand, but partners with a good five card side suit have been known to push the envelope a bit in bidding 3NT.
It's very possible that the opening lead might not be a spade, it's very possible Rho doesn't have one. I don't kow if partner can cope with an opening club lead or not, but probably he can. I hope so.
I am not up for a slam try, 3NT must be the best shot at game, so I pass.
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My initial thoughts:
Problem A: 6NT – I will echo hoki on this one. He asks “How can partner have spades well stopped when I have AQ42?” I remember watching, in my bridge youth, a very good pair find their 4-4 spade fit, and then make a couple of slam tries below game. They signed off in game knowing they had about 30 combined HCPs when the (literally) little old lady doubled. Their smug reply was to redouble, The confidence was wiped away when trump broke 5-0 headed by the AKQJ. I don’t know if the opponent is fooling around or has a decent hand with five bad spades, but I think this is a do you trust partner or the opponents situation, and my hand is too good to passively pass at this point. I will probably do this more slowly though.
Problem B: 2C – I have been giving considerable thought to redouble for the same reasons that hoki gave, but the quality of the club suit is pulling me that direction. 2C following the takeout double is non-forcing, but still should be viewed constructively by partner. I would much rather partner bid the NT if that is the right strain with no tenaces and no major suit stoppers. Bidding clubs may be just the impetus to get partner to make that call, and with Kx, I would not be unhappy to hear partner rebid diamonds.
Problem C: 1NT – I am torn between 1 !S and 1NT. I feel like the NT is the better description.
Problem D: b2 – I do not want to give up on the 4-4 hearts, so I will start with the semi-forcing NT. It helps that I have easy rebid options
Problem E: Pass – I want to make a responsive double, but that is inadmissible. I don’t have the values or shape to do anything but possibly back in later.
Problem F: Dbl – Too much shape to pass, not enough points to be more aggressive. I hope partner bids a major, or has at least 5 if diamonds. Crossing my fingers that I have enough defense if partner passes
Problem G: 3 !D – I don’t like bidding when partner has preempted without a fit, while I feel like I need to do something. Maybe something good will come of it.
Problem H: !C 2 – Sorely tempted to lead a low spade. Maybe I will come up with something more inspired nefore submission.
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PROBLEM A: Pass.
What does partner have?
o He doesn’t have heart support, otherwise he supports.
o With a minor, over the 1 !S overcall, he bids it. Both 2 !C and 2 !D are forcing.
o With both minors he doubles.
o With !S Kx and no heart support, by the process of elimination he would have one or both minors. So partner’s spade stop is a long one. At least Jxx but almost surely Jxxx. (Yes, it’s remotely possible partner has the !S King and overcaller has Jack-fifth.)
These “dog that didn’t bark” clues lead me to believe partner has something like:
!S Jxxx — !H Jx — !D AKJx — !C QJx
Even giving partner more, say:
!S Jxxx — !H Tx — !D AKJx — !C AQJ
Leaves me wondering where 12 tricks will come from. I have no source of tricks.
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These “dog that didn’t bark” clues lead me to believe partner has something like:
!S Jxxx — !H Jx — !D AKJx — !C QJx
Even giving partner more, say:
!S Jxxx — !H Tx — !D AKJx — !C AQJ
I wish I could say I'm convinced. Bidding 3NT with either of those hands means that
partner is relying on being able to run nine tricks after the spade stopper is knocked
out at trick 1. That is why I can't help thinking that partner really needs two spade
stoppers, something like K-10-x-x, to justify a jump when 3NT could otherwise be
reached in a more stately fashion.
And if you are giving partner J-x in hearts (not possible because I've got the jack)
or 10-x in hearts, then why not Q-x? In that case the second example is looking far
more likely. Partner can't know your spades are as good as they are, so wouldn't
partner first ponder over whether 4♥ gives a better matchpoint result than
3NT with a reasonable doubleton in support of hearts.
Modify it further as:
♠ K-10-x-x ♥ Q-x ♦ A-J-x-x ♣ A-J-x
and do you still think it is right to pass?
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And if you are giving partner J-x in hearts (not possible because I've got the jack)
or 10-x in hearts, then why not Q-x?
Oops on including the Jack. Why not Qx? I thought about it and intentionally excluded it because I thought it good enough that partner might slow the auction down with a 2m response. Qx is good support (as doubletons go, which is his max). Because he didn't, I don't think his support is that good.
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There are many interesting things about A. I acknowledge that there might be 12 tricks there. Or not. I think "not" is a better bet. Here is a question:
What should we make of an auction that continues uncontested after the 1 !S overcall: X -something-3NT? It seems this would be useful as a way of saying "I suppose I could play this in 3NT but if you have something else in mind, like maybe if !H Qx would be enough for you to want to play oin 4 !H, go ahead.
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Re Problem A: When I wrote 6NT - that was more of a gut reaction. I see my partner with a good 12 to a bad 16, so I think of a slam as having potential. I do not think that partner has a good 5+ card suit (say !D KQJxx or !C AQxxx), or it would have been bid! I also do not see partner bidding like that on a Jxxx suit unless it is believed that there might be a source of tricks - that is when I can see partner holding the !H Q or !D AKQJ. Now given these restrictions, I don't think I want to bid slam unless I have all of the aces, so my actual bid will be 4 !C.
I have too much to not try. Nonetheless, I will need luck and/or finesses to bring this home anyway, so I will not go in knowing I have a loser in the form of an ace. This will allow me to escape to 4NT if I don't have my final linchpin. But I think to Pass on this hand is a losing proposition, both at the table and in MSC.
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Problem B: 2C seems right to me.
First let's see what the BWS agreements are:
After our minor-suit opening and a takeout double:
(a) a one-level new-suit response is forcing (by an unpassed hand);
(b) one diamond — (double) — two clubs is not forcing;
(c) two notrump shows a game-invitational or stronger raise of opener's suit (direct jump-raises are preemptive);
(d) a direct single raise is natural, similar to a single major-suit raise;
(e) a jump-shift is preemptive;
(f) a double jump-shift is a splinter raise;
(g) a redouble shows any hand with 10-plus HCP that is not suitable for a raise or a new-suit bid.
These are pretty much what I think of as standard agreements. One way to look at (b) and (g) is that 2C announces: I am content to play in 2C. If you have a typical 12-14 count then you can pass this out or, with a club fit, you can raise. But I am not prepared to play 2M X unless you have extras, and I doubt we have game unless you have extras." Otherwise put, we can compete to 3C if partner has the hand for it, or we can sell to 2M. If partner has a zillion diamonds he can do as he thinks best. If he has extras he can show it. But often he as a 12-14 point opener and then he can look at his shape and perhaps bid 3C.
The 2C is also effective interference. Doubles are often made on 4-3 in the majors, responders to the double are often 4-3 in the majors. Sometimes they have a 4-4 fit, sometimes not, and they have to sort on strength as well. 2C takes up some room.
Doubling would say that the opponents cannot be left to play 2M undoubled. I don't think I want to say that.
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Ken,
Sans the BWS research (and perhaps the specific order), you summarized my thinking on Problem B perfectly.
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Problem A
After reading all the previous wisdom, can I have a go?
Simple analysis:
I have a good 17 and partner must have at least a good 14. That makes 31. So invite with 4NT.
More considered analysis:
We need to balance a credible 3NT by partner against a credible 1♠ overcall by West. If we give partner ♠Kx only then we must expect running ♦s. Say
(a) ♠ Kx, ♥ xx, ♦ AKQJxxx, ♣ Qx giving West at most ♠J109xx, ♥ Qxx, ♦x, ♣ AJxx. Not much of an overcall. OTOH if we give partner
(b) ♠ KJxx, ♥ Qx, ♦ AQxx, ♣ Qxx, then West could have ♠ 109876, ♥ xxx, ♦ KJx, ♣ AJ or
(c) ♠ KJxx, ♥ xx, ♦ AQxx, ♣ Axx, then West could have ♠ 109876, ♥ Qxx, ♦ KJx, ♣ QJ
Opposite all these hands we can make 12 tricks. Trust partner has got his bid and not the opponents. So go for 6NT.
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Re Problem A:
I don't think I want to bid slam unless I have all of the aces, so my actual bid will be 4 !C.
I have too much to not try.
Jim,
Apparently you're intending this as Gerber?
I can't imagine BWS would treat it as such. Natural makes more sense. Maybe rethink this?
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Problem A: Why would 4NT not be interpreted as key card in hearts?
What else could I do with 20-ish points and a six-card heart suit?
Oliver
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PROBLEM A: 4 Clubs
PROBLEM B: Redouble
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (b2)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: Double
PROBLEM G: 3 Spades
PROBLEM H: Diamond Ace
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Re Problem A:
I don't think I want to bid slam unless I have all of the aces, so my actual bid will be 4 !C.
I have too much to not try.
Jim,
Apparently you're intending this as Gerber?
I can't imagine BWS would treat it as such. Natural makes more sense. Maybe rethink this?
I'm not sure why it wouldn't be Gerber. It qualifies as a first or last NT. It can't be Stayman when partner had the opportunity to make a negative double. Natural is the other most likely use of the bid. I doubt that BWS would take away all ace asking possibilities when your hand is unlimited. Now Hoki has an answer to my doubt:
Problem A: Why would 4NT not be interpreted as key card in hearts?
What else could I do with 20-ish points and a six-card heart suit?
Oliver
Nonetheless, in the absence of discussion, I would treat 4NT is quantitative.
I will continue to give this problem additional thought and try to make sense of my possible bids.
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I only mention it because to play 4 !C after 3NT (no jump) would be a highly unusual expert agreement (in my opinion). There are reams of material on this on the forums.
While there are frequent disagreements about what is (and what is not) Gerber, the above is almost universally panned by experts. This is usually described as either natural, or some sort of slam try.
Reviewing BWS, the following are considered Gerber:
1NT – 4 !C
2NT – 4 !C
1x – 1y – 1NT – 4 !C
1x – 1y – 2NT – 4 !C
2 !C – 2x – 2NT – 4 !C
There is no mention of 4 !C over 3NT.
I find 4 !C here to be an interesting call. It is my belief that partner has denied a five card !C suit. He has also denied three !H (in my opinion).
I dunno. 4 !C is certainly a good way (even as a generic slam move) to elicit more information if we think slam possible.
Is it?
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in discussion with a pard, i sugest that 4 !C is Gerber if and only if two conditions are satisfied. It is a jump to 4 !C and it is immediately over a natural NT. That's the default, allowing for other specific discussed cases.
For example one could play, and at times I have played, that 1NT - 2 !C - 2M - 4 !C is Roman Key Card Gerber with M as trump. With discussion, fine, without discussion I take it as a splinter in support of M. I think from previous posts that BWS plays it as Key Card Gerber.
One of the benefits of this whole MSC thing is to get discussions going as to when what bid means what.
I have an old copy of Kantar's book on Conventions somewhere. I recall that he discussed what happens after an opening 2NT. Start with 3 !C being Stayman or Puppet Stayman. Now suppose 4 !C is Gerber. Sometimes we are dealt clubs and we wish to bid clubs. Ok, we could use 3 !S to show clubs. But wait, we are sometimes dealt diamonds and we wish to show diamonds. Sometimes we are dealy both minors. Usually, or I think usually, 2NT - 3 !S is Minor Suit Stayman.
There is no completely satisfactory answer to all of this. Fortunately, most of the problems don't arise often so we just need something that we agree to. Hence my conditions on Gerber: It's a jump immediately over a natural NT. That doesn't have to be an opening NT. 1 !C - 1M- 1NT - 4 !C is Gerber, the 1NT was natural the 4 !C is a jump.
I imagine expert partnerships have a more detailed agreement but this seems to take care of most things that actually arise.
The current problem would be perhaps an exception, I can't ask for aces. Otoh, I am not so sure I am satisfied with knowing that we have three aces.
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problem A:>> (Naturally) The mentors have convinced me that dropping 3NT is an underbid. They propose that pard has FOUR spades, not Kx or Kxx, else there would be a minor to bid first or a 13-pt neg couble, if 4-4 or 4-5. Now, if we put Kxxx, 10x, AQxx Axx across from my AQxx, AKJxx, x, Kxx, that leaves the overcaller with an awesome Jxxxx (JTxxx?), Qxx, KJx, QJ. Asking partner if he has more than such a 13-count, or a 13-count with some kickers [ like major tens ] requires that the overcaller to have even uglier an overcall, but so be it. Raising 3NT can't hurt even though "I know" he will not have a drop extras. Changing my problem A from pass to raise (4NT).
As for "no choice-1NT" on problem B, I am standing firm on this one. I cannot ever remember bidding 2C on this or similar auctions in 45 years, which for me is more in the "rescue/ obstructive" category. Redouble is fine, but it will only led to a swamp of forcing passes leading to flailing guesses UNLESS pard has a hand that knows exactly what to do with a free 1NT after opps' double. Redoubles don't make any money when neither of us will be having 4 in whatever opponents slink off to, so it is the 3--3 majors that rule it out for me-- not the 'missing' 10th point.
problemD:>> How do we get to PLAY 2D in our 62-2 [1?] diamond fit? the good old way whick is to bid respond 1NT, and change 2C to 2D is OUT, thanks to BART (see _____'s research above). So, hat leaves me with the passed-hand 2 diamond bid. I am told that if I BART this hand, and pard comes through with the 3rd bid of 2 Hearts, I cannot be SURE that that shows three (wtf??) besides which these are not dream cards to be playing a 3-4 trump contract, I don't recall digging this far down for a 2-level response before, but look -- it IS 2 points shy of a sketchy one-opening, so, 2D is my vote.
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SOLVER: Babs Giesbrecht
Qualicum Beach BC
Canada
Your Solutions for the July 2020 Contest
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PROBLEM A: 4 Notrump
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (b3)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: Pass
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 2
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Anyone have any words of wisdom on PROBLEM E?
I could go with any of about four answers -- none of them based on a moment of clarity. I usually have some clue. Not here.
Help? :-\
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Anyone have any words of wisdom on PROBLEM E?
I could go with any of about four answers -- none of them based on a moment of clarity. I usually have some clue. Not here.
Help? :-\
Blu says Pass
Hoki says Pass
Babs says Pass
I say Pass
So obviously, as a contrarian, you must exclude that option and now you are down to three choices. I have just resolved 25% of your angst. ;D
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Jim,
I was hoping for something more than the lemming argument. You offer me the anti-lemming argument. I suppose. It's certainly as good as any of the ideas I had formulated. The best was, "why bid higher and get into deeper trouble?" ::)
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Problem E: 1 !C - 1 !H - Pass - ? If I were to bid I would intend the bid as constructive and expect it to be interpreted as constructive. The old axiom is "Don't rescue a partner who has not been doubled". So is the hand worth a constructive 1 !S call? I don't really think so. And I don't want a !S lead. I probably don't all that much want !D lead either and anyway the hand is not remotely worth a call at the 2 level. Passing sounds just fine and dandy to me. Neither 1 !S nor 2 !D would be forcing, but partner would think I had something and that might not end well.
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Todd,
You said you had four choices. Four of us had already made the same choice, so I presumed it was one of the four on the table. Since my argument was already on the table
Problem E: Pass – I want to make a responsive double, but that is inadmissible. I don’t have the values or shape to do anything but possibly back in later.
I also presumed it was not sufficient for your purposes, so all I could do is offer a reason to discount the lemming approach (which I endorsed before it became a cascade).
However, you did not provide, much less expound upon why you like, any of the three other choices you explicitly elude to. Perhaps if you give their reasons voice, it will help you narrow the choices, or at least give the rest of us a sounding board to either endorse or reject the choices you are battling with.
At least I provided my other choice - a responsive double - and discussed why I would not exercise that choice - inadmissible. Come on, Todd, this is a forum, where is your beef on this problem?
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E: I am happy with my pass, the more I think about it the happier I get. No doubt at least some of the panelists will be explaining why this is wrong.
So I have been thinking about just why Rho passed. Of course he could be broke but I don't have much and pard's overcall places some limit on his strength. So maybe Lho has a huge hand and is about to bid 1NT on his 18-19 count. Fine, let him. Or maybe Rho has a heart stack and of course could not double for penalty. If Lho doubles to take care of this then my pass, followed by a run, will make the situation pretty clear to partner. Of course maybe Lho will pass it out and 1 !H will be set while 1 !S or 2 !D would make. Could be, but usually opener does not pass out 1 !H so I am comfortable enough taking this chance. Here is another possibility. Rho might have an 8 or 9 count with diamonds. If he had an 8 or 9 count with spades he would bid them with 5+ or X with 4, if he had an 8 or 9 count with !H stopped but no desire to defend at the 1 level he could bid 1NT, and if he has 8 or 9 with !C he could support !C. But with an 8 or 9 count with !D? Maybe Jxx / xxx / AQxxx / Jx ? Of course with my six card !D suit this holding seems unlikely. But if so, then Lho will be short in !D and probably , over my pass, will bid 1 !S or 2 !C depending on his shape. Or yes, he might pass.
I am far from sure that 1 !H will be a disaster even if it is passed out and I doubt it will be.
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Anyone have any words of wisdom on PROBLEM E?
I could go with any of about four answers -- none of them based on a moment of clarity. I usually have some clue. Not here.
Help? :-\
Blu says Pass
Hoki says Pass
Babs says Pass
I say Pass
So obviously, as a contrarian, you must exclude that option and now you are down to three choices. I have just resolved 25% of your angst. ;D
it took two weeks til I noticed the opps probably have something in clubs despite the obvious misfits in all other suits. but i agree that either simple new suit bid is more constructive than I am worth. So we are left with THREE diams as the alternative bid. Scarey, yes? Have we narrowed the field down to a single choice, or are you going with me down that rabbit hole?
Edited by jcreech to take Blu's new reasoning out of the jcreech quote
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From BWS:
After our simple overcall of a one-bid:
(a) A new-suit bid by an unpassed advancer is natural and nonforcing, constructive if an advance of a two-level overcall. (Then: a cue-bid by intervenor is artificial and neither shows nor denies a primary fit for advancer's suit.) A new-suit jump is invitational.
I guess that means I could bid 1 !S w/o it being construed as constructive. I am still not doing it. It definitely rules out 3 !D though. I see weak jump shifts as something the opening side does, not the intervening side. That seems to be the BWS view as well.
I continue to see this thread as very useful for bringing different interpretations to light. As a contest, we take the BWS approach and the it's a matter of judgement. But for applications beyond the contest itself I think the "what means what" aspect is very useful. We have seen it this month both with Gerber and RKC for problem A, and here again in problem E. In A, I think raising 3NT to 4NT would be invitational tp 6NT, and I think bidding 4 !C over 3NT shows clubs. But am I right?
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A. Pass. Bids given in quizzes cannot be non-sensical, otherwise we descend to farce. Having said that, West’s 1S overcall looks to be on a steep slope. Partner’s 3N looks pragmatic; 12-14 HCP, no heart support, stops in both minors (but not 44), and a working stop in S. Smells to me like JTxx x AKx AJxxx or JTxx x KQxxx AQx. That leaves W’s 1S o/call as K98xx – not to my taste but then W is white opposite red (if he held JTxxxx why not make a 2S overcall?). Anyway, back to p’s postulated hands.
If p’s longer minor suit was stronger (AQJxx in C or AKJxx in D) he would have bid 3m. (He would also bid 3m if he held Kx in S and a good minor suit, because a minor suit slam must now be on).
If p had xx in H, and especially Qx, I would expect him to have bid 3m, no matter how good his longer minor was, to give me a chance to show a 6-card heart suit.
Flying in the face of much expert comment (not a new attitude), I am going to pass. I will probably suffer, but I can’t believe W would overcall with J high nor that p with a good minor will ignore it and bid 3N. Sure, some advance might be possible but with either of p’s postulated hands we have two losers.
B and C are related. Here’s BWS After our minor-suit opening and a takeout double:
(a) a one-level new-suit response is forcing (by an unpassed hand);
(b) one diamond — (double) — two clubs is not forcing;
(c) two notrump shows a game-invitational or stronger raise of opener's suit (direct jump-raises are preemptive);
(d) a direct single raise is natural, similar to a single major-suit raise;
(e) a jump-shift is preemptive;
(f) a double jump-shift is a splinter raise;
(g) a redouble shows any hand with 10-plus HCP that is not suitable for a raise or a new-suit bid.
B. 2C. Looks an obvious choice from this scheme. Perhaps with 10 9 and two other 10s, the hand can be upgraded to xx (Kaplan & Rubens rate as 9.65), but why hide a strong club suit?
C. 1S. As a passed hand, the natural 1S looks obvious. If I don’t show my 4c spade suit now, p will never believe I have one, even if later in the auction I dance on the table and wave the cards in his face. 2S would be pre-emptive and the suit’s too short for that. Where’s the catch?
D. (a) 2D.
E. Pass. We’re not vulnerable. East has passed – what does that show? I guess p is limited to 15 HCP (otherwise x and then H bid or 1N). If E is 3/4 HCP that would leave opener with about 17. But does E pass in this situation with more? They may well have a C fit and if 2C comes round to me (either from re-bid from W or x and then 2C) I can bid 2D, but for now pass. After all, they could land in 2S after W re-opens with a x – and I’m dancing on the table again.
F. Pass. Oh, I soooooo want to bid 4C without even looking at the BWS system, just to placate the Great Dealer for giving me 55 in the majors. But I can’t really bid 4C and I can’t really double. If I was put on the rack and tortured to make one of those bids, I’d be screaming “4C” before the crank started turning. If partner has enough points for us to be in game, wouldn’t he have made a move? Passing feels wrong, but head over heart, I suppose.
G. 3D looks reasonable. Briefly, I wondered what x would mean in BWS, but partner would not open a weak 2M with 4 cards in the other major (even if BWS standards in 1st and 2nd seat look a bit lax).
H. AS. I’m tempted to bang down the spade Ace to have a look at dummy, because 4H covers a huge range of hands. I’d be especially keen if partner played suit preference on this, as some folk do. In BWS he’ll do that only if dummy has a stiff S, and that looks impossible. I’d rather avoid a minor suit lead, especially clubs. AS can cost, but I’ll get two chances (probably) to signal when trumps are drawn.
SOLUTIONS FOR:
Dick Harvey
Southampton
U.K.
PROBLEM A: Pass
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (a)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: Pass
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Spade Ace
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JULY Guesses:
PROBLEM A: Pass.
What does partner have?
o He doesn’t have heart support, otherwise he supports.
o With a minor, over the1 !S overcall, he bids it. Both 2 !C and 2 !D are forcing.
o With both minors he doubles.
o With !S Kx and no heart support, by the process of elimination he would have one or both minors. So partner’s spade stop is a long one. At least Jxx but almost surely Jxxx. (Yes, it’s remotely possible partner has the !S King and overcaller has Jack-fifth.)
These “dog that didn’t bark” clues lead me to believe partner has something like:
!S Jxxx — !H Tx — !D AKQx — !C QJx
Even giving partner more, say:
!S Jxxx — !H Tx — !D AKJx — !C AQJ
Leaves me wondering where 12 tricks will come from. I have no source of tricks.
PROBLEM B: 2 !C.
Not forcing! Very close decision for me. 1NT also works. Yes, it’s a mild upgrade with the nice spots—but it’s still not 10—and a redouble only gets us in trouble further into the auction. 2 !C is a bid-where-I-live choice.
PROBLEM C: 1 !S.
WTP? 1NT is my second choice.
PROBLEM D: 2 !D.
What does starting with 1NT do for you? If you intend to BART this hand by responding 1NT and rebidding 2 !D (remember, it’s forcing), then what? If partner has a 2 !C bid (as he does here!), you simply can't show your hand.
If instead, you begin with 2 !D (yes, it’s an overbid), since you are a passed hand, you may very well play there or maybe partner may rebid 2 !H.
This problem is the poster child example for not playing BART!
PROBLEM E: Pass.
No confidence in this. Less confidence in 2 !D and 1 !S.
PROBLEM F: 3 !H.
Another bid-where-I-live choice. Although I have two five-card majors, the spade suit is too sparse to mention with some misguided intention of later showing the hearts. A double, which would be my second choice, might land us in an unmakeable 5 !D. And the cuebid of 4 !C, presumably forcing partner to choose a major at the 4-level, is too rich.
PROBLEM G: 3 !D.
Matchpoint decisions are tough. A double could easily be right. Pass, too.
This is forcing, so I may be turning a small minus into a larger one.
PROBLEM H: !C 8.
Correct from this holding.
The !D Ace was my second choice (and !S A third), but doing so could be setting up dummy’s KQ.
SOLUTIONS FOR:
Todd Holes
Glen Ellyn IL
U.S.A.
PROBLEM A: Pass
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (a)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: 3 Hearts
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 8
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Submitted for Redbird44
PROBLEM A: Pass
PROBLEM B: Redouble
PROBLEM C: 1 Notrump
PROBLEM D: (b3)
PROBLEM E: 1 Spade
PROBLEM F: 4 Clubs
PROBLEM G: Double
PROBLEM H: Club T
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A - Pass Borderline points for 6nt, I'm going to leave it.
B - 2c normal with 10 points, here not much diff
C - 1s seems normal
D - (a) 2D BART thing is weird, would rather 1nt then 2d but can't, note makes it seem like 1nt then 3D is too strong.
E - 1s op that passed has bupkis or a stack of hearts, I'm looking for something else to land in, maybe my diamonds will be nice in 1nt.
F - Pass - this "feels" wrong to pass in this contest, but I'm hoping thats what I would really do.
G - 3D - can tolerate a rebid by p
H - 8 club - I wrote down 8 as 3/5 lead, so I have to stick with it.
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PROBLEM A: Pass. I can hardly imagine a hand partner holds that can make slam. We seem to have a misfit and no trick source for slam.
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs.
PROBLEM C: 1 Notrump. Always bid what the hand looks like.
PROBLEM D: (a). I guess with the agreement of Bart, 2D here should be contructive.
PROBLEM E: Pass. Where are the missing points? I have only 5, East passed and partner didn't make a double. I hope I can get a chance to make a bid on the next round.
PROBLEM F: 3 Spades. Tough one. With this shape, I'd like to take a bet on bidding but I don't like to double. It's dangerous to double opps with a void in their suit as partner might pass the double and I'm not strong in defensive value. If partner bid over my 3S, I'd bid 4H next.
PROBLEM G: Pass. I'm happy to take a positive score in defense when our partial game in D or S is in doubt to make.
PROBLEM H: Club 8.
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SOLUTIONS FOR:Jock McQuade
Portlandia ORU.S.A.
PROBLEM A: 4 Notrump -- which partner will surely have to pass so no harm done
PROBLEM B: 1 Notrump --BTW there is no support for a free 1NT showing a MINIMUM of 10 but thanks for not ruling it out on account of 'wrong-siding
PROBLEM C: 1 Notrump
PROBLEM D: (a)
PROBLEM E: Pass -- Staying with my original thought that this is a serious death-trap, after much dithering
PROBLEM F: Pass -- If JOE can bring hisself to pass, then count me in, too
PROBLEM G: Double -- Todd was correct 3 Diams is forcing even over comp-- yukk , so that is OUT out.
PROBLEM H: Club 8 -- And Jim thanks for reminding me : BWS uses 3rd & low vs. suits, so I will "cherish my deuce"
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A, 6N
B. 2C
C. 1S
D. B3
E. 1S
F. x
G. 3D
H. 2C
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SOLUTIONS FOR:
James Creech
FREDERICKSBURG VA
U.S.A.
PROBLEM A: 4 Clubs My hardest decision - don't know what it means, but clearly a slam try
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade I still like 1NT, but dbl may be based on 3-4 in majors
PROBLEM D: (b2)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: Double
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 8 Bending to 3/5 leads against suits
Changes from my initial thoughts are noted
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Submitted for Aloha9
PROBLEM A: 4 Spades
PROBLEM B: Redouble
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: B2
PROBLEM E: 1 Spade
PROBLEM F: Double
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 2
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Will submit tomorrow morning before the deadline.
A 6NT for reasons given earlier. OR maybe 4 !C as Jim says"don't know what it means but clearly a slam try"
B 2 !C
Prefer 2♣ to INT because over 1NT opps might well compete 2M. If partner has a weak no trump we have to defend. Whereas if I bid 2♣ and partner has 4 card ♣ support we can compete.
C 1 !S
Partner might well have only 3♠, in which case I do not want to be playing in 2 !S
D b2
1NT then after 2 !C 2 !D. This describes my hand perfectly
E Pass
Stay out of trouble
F 3 !H
3♥ good suit so just about worth the balancing overcall
G 3 !D
H 8 !C
Would have been 2 !C until I learned that BWS plays 3rd against suit contracts
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our Solutions for the July 2020 Contest
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PROBLEM A: 4 Notrump
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (b3)
PROBLEM E: 1 Spade
PROBLEM F: 4 Clubs
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 2
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PROBLEM A: 4 Notrump
PROBLEM B: Redouble
PROBLEM C: 1 Notrump
PROBLEM D: (b3)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: Double
PROBLEM G: Pass
PROBLEM H: Spade 2
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Problem D
In "Advanced Bidding for the 21st Century" by Max Hardy Mike Passel says about BART a "must play convention for all intermediates and up" My comment "Sic!"
To use Bart 2 !D after 1 !S -1N- 2 !C you must have one of these hand types:
1. 5 !H +2 !S
2. Hx !S 9-11HCP
3. Game invite with a good !D suit
4. A good !C raise
5. A raise to 2NT with 4 !C
The sad thing about our hand is that none of these 5 conditions apply and we are not allowed to play in 2 !D.
So what is the nearest thing we can do remembering that we are a passed hand:
1. 1 !S -2 !D? BWS says nothing about this.
2. 1 !S - 1NT -2 !C - 3 !D. That is described in the book as a pre-emptive raise to 3 !D. "My comment: A mis-use of the word pre-empt" BWS says "After one heart — one notrump — two clubs — ?, three diamonds shows long diamonds in a hand improved by the two-club bid; OTOH The MSC Note says *BWS: Bart applies. By agreement, 3 ♦ directly weak
3. 1 !S - 1NT -2 !C -2 !D - then (i) pass 2 !H playing in a 4-3 fit (ii) If opener bids 2 !S showing min values you bid 3 !D invite. *BWS: Bart applies. By agreement, 3 ♦ after Bart is stronger.
Under these terrible constraints what should we the mere mortals vote for? We have 8HCP and a poor 6 card !D suit. It looks like a likely misfit where we need 26+ to make 3N, in which case partner probably needs 18HCP to make game. So we need to get out as cheaply as possible.
A possibility:
1. After Bard 2 !D partner is obliged to bid 2 !H with a 3 card suit which we pass playing in a 4-3. Sadly again, noting that everything is against us we note that if partner does not have 3 hearts and rebids say 2 !S, then we rescue to 3 !D which may encourage partner to bid 3NT with say a 5224 14 count because after BART 3 !D is stronger.
Verdict:
Under these stupid restraints the only bid we can sensibly make is a direct bid of 3 !D.
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SOLUTIONS FOR:
Jack Goody
Guildford
England
PROBLEM A: 4 Clubs
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (b3)
PROBLEM E: Pass
PROBLEM F: 3 Hearts
PROBLEM G: 3 Diamonds
PROBLEM H: Club 8
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Problem D
A possibility:
1. After Bard 2 !D partner is obliged to bid 2 !H with a 3 card suit which we pass playing in a 4-3. Sadly again, noting that everything is against us we note that if partner does not have 3 hearts and rebids say 2 !S, then we rescue to 3 !D which may encourage partner to bid 3NT with say a 5224 14 count because after BART 3 !D is stronger.
This--going through Bart anyway, even though 2 !D is forcing, was a choice I strongly considered for the exact reason you mention, Jack. If partner has three !H, he is obliged to rebid 2 !H and we can safely play there knowing that a 4-3 fit should play fine at the 2-level.
But I chose the overbid of an immediate 2 !D instead.
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SOLVER: Kenneth Berg
Sykesville MD
U.S.A.
Your Solutions for the July 2020 Contest
-------------------
PROBLEM A: Pass
Pessimistic I suppose, but I look at it as "Partner perhaps bid 3NT hoping it would come in. Partners often do that (me too) and with this hand I expect it will.
PROBLEM B: 2 !C
I expect I can make 1NT. And I can make 2 !C. But if I bid 1NT and Lho bids 2M then I do what? If I bid 2 !C and Lho bids 2M I am comfortable leaving the choice to partner. And, if Lho plays it, I will get a club lead.
PROBLEM C: 1 Notrump
I expect I can make 1NT. Yes, there is a danger of missing a !S fit but I think 1NT is fine.
PROBLEM D: (a)
Checking BWS I see that 2 !C is a drury bid but 2 !D is not. That's the way I like it and this hand was made for that agreement. 2 !D is non-forcing (?? see below) so pard can pass. Pard will not expect great !D, else I would have opened 2 !D. If he has !H to go with his !S he is free to bid them.
PROBLEM E: Pass
This has been discussed a fair amount. Perhaps Lho will pass but it's not often that this happens and when it doesn't then I am in a fair position to bid. Say Lho bids 2 !C passed to me. Now 2 !D sounds good. I have !D but I didn't think the hand was worth an immediate 2 !D.
PROBLEM F: 3 Spades
I know, that's barely what I would call a five card !S suit but if I am going to bid at all I need to hope for something of a fit. My !H AK should take a couple of tricks whether or not !H are trump.
PROBLEM G: Pass
I think we are beating 3 !C, or at least we have a decent chance. Partner did open 2 !S vul so expecting him to have the A is not rampant optimism. And, if not, then the KQ. Otoh I am for from sure we can make much of anything and yes, bidding 3 !D is forcing. I could be holding a hand where I would be delighted that 3 !D is forcing but this is not that hand.
PROBLEM H: !D A.
Did anyone else choose this? I think it is the lead that is the least likely to give away a trick and who knows, maybe we get a ruff. My first thought was that surely I lead a !C but I doubt pard has the A and, if not, I will regret the !C lead if the Q is either on the board or on declerer's hand.
About D: Here is BWS on passed hand bidding
Passed-Hand Situations: These methods apply to responding to a major-suit opening by a passed hand:
(a) one notrump is semiforcing (6-12 points);
(b) two clubs is a strong raise (a hand too strong for a single raise, but unsuited to a higher bid);
(c) three clubs is natural, similar to two diamonds but with long clubs;
(d) a jump-shift other than three clubs is a strong raise with length in the suit bid;
(e) a double jump-shift is a splinter raise.
This does not stipulate whether 2 !D is or is not forcing but I am a passed hand so I don't see why it would be. I certainly prefer that it be played as non-forcing.
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PROBLEM A: 6 Notrump
PROBLEM B: 2 Clubs
PROBLEM C: 1 Spade
PROBLEM D: (b2)
PROBLEM E: 1 Spade
PROBLEM F: 4 Clubs
PROBLEM G: 3 Spades
PROBLEM H: Spade Ace
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Scores are out . . .
An anonymous participant led the way, with CCR3 a distant second and a tie between last month's winner YleeXotee and perpetual leader Masse24 third; if entered, our leader would have been tied for first in The Bridge World Honor Roll, and other three leaders did make the Honor Roll (which required a 700 this month), so congrats!!
Way to go to our anonymous participant
| NAME | BW-SCORE | RANK | MPs |
| Anonymous | 780 | 1 | 30 |
| CCR3 | 710 | 2 | 25 |
| Masse24 | 700 | 3 | 20 |
| YleeXotee | 700 | 3 | 20 |
| . . . . . . . . | . . . . . . . . . . . . | . . . . . . . | . . . . |
|
Also participating and receiving 1 Monster Point are (alphabetically): Aloha9, BabsG, Blubayou,DickHy,DrAculea, Hoki, Jcreech, KenBerg, MarilynLi, Msphola, Redbird44, Thornbury, VeeRee, WackoJack. A solid month, with some high scores all around!
We had a GREAT turnout, one of our best! Hopefully we can continue to build on this in the coming months!
Commentary is still welcome for this set. :) There were some interesting problems, solutions, and choices by our members.
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Guilty as charged, I just could not find time to even look hands -- pays me well leaving it for last minute. Swy Todd and Jim! :-[
But congrats to winners, and so glad see such nice turn out, wtg guys! !H
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JULY MSC SUMMARY – David Berkowitz Director
A handful of the panel's comments:
PROBLEM A: 4NT. A majority, by more than a 2:1 margin over Pass.
Lots of pre-deadline discussion on this one in the IAC. But The Bridge World made no mention of Ace-asking or Gerber. It was, for the most part, a simple quantitative raise decision.
Berkowitz in summarizing the top choice: “It seemed to most panelists that South held too much strength to pass.”
► WackoJack said it simplist with: “I have a good 17 and partner must have at least a good 14. That makes 31. So invite with 4NT.”
► Bobby Wolff: “4NT. My guess for partner is: !S Kx !H xx !D AKQTxx !C Jxx , but I’m hoping for the Jack of !D and Q of !C .”
Berkowitz counters with: “I don’t get it. With six solid diamonds a spade stop, could a two-diamond response have been that far off the mark?” This thinking echoed that of many of our IAC solvers, me included.
► Zia: 4NT. No reason not to raise; partner’s range is 11-17 HCP.”
► The Sanborns: 4NT. The question is, what is the top range for 3NT? 16-17 HCP? If so, we should bid again. What is partner’s likely shape? 4=2=3=4 or 4=2=4=3 are the most likely possibilities. With a five card minor, he could show that first.”
Although a few mentioned what partner did not bid, most concentrated on the fact that we have a big hand, too much to pass.
Next!
PROBLEM B: 2 !C. Huge majority.
In this auction, after the double, a two-level suit bid is non-forcing.
Fully 20 of 27 panelists chose this straightforward “bid where I live” response.
► Adam Grossack: “2 !C. Perfect example of the bid. I’m bidding where I live for lead purposes and not wrongsiding notrump if partner has a strong hand.”
► Masse24: “2 !C is a bid-where-I-live choice.”
► Philip Alder: “2 !C. I will bid where I live and hope to be able to act again.”
One-notrump, with both majors unstopped was unappealing, with only two panelists making it their choice. Pass found three votes. And redouble two.
PROBLEM C: 1 !S. This was a “WTP?” choice, it appears.
There were twenty panelists who chose 1 !S and only seven who went with 1NT.
PROBLEM D: 2 !D. Another majority.
There were too many explanations to list. But Chip Martel said it simplest with: “2 !D. Since the only way to play 2 !D is to bid it now, I really should do that.”
“I guess with the agreement of Bart, 2 !D here should be constructive,” was MarilynLi’s thinking.
The Sanborns: “2 !D. We have the values for 2 !D and don’t see any reason to pussyfoot around. Using Bart, if we bid 1NT, we can’t play in 2 !D, and that could easily be our best spot.”
PROBLEM E: 2 !D. A mostly binary choice.
We (the IAC) missed the boat on this one. 24 of 27 panelists did something other than Pass.
► Rodwell chose the major saying: “1 !S. Major more important but 2 !D would be reasonable. I can’t afford to bid out later to show a 5=6, as a five-three or maybe a five-four spade fit would get lost. Lead-direction is a secondary consideration.
► Kehela: “2 !D. Hoping that the bidding will proceed in a fashion to permit me to introduce the spade suit at a sensible level.”
► DickHy: “Pass. We’re not vulnerable. East has passed – what does that show? I guess p is limited to 15 HCP (otherwise x and then H bid or 1N). If E is 3/4 HCP that would leave opener with about 17. But does E pass in this situation with more? They may well have a C fit and if 2C comes round to me (either from re-bid from W or x and then 2C) I can bid 2D, but for now pass. After all, they could land in 2S after W re-opens with a x – and I’m dancing on the table again.”
► WackoJack, more succinctly: “Pass. Stay out of trouble.”
► KenBerg: “Pass. If I were to bid I would intend the bid as constructive and expect it to be interpreted as constructive. The old axiom is "Don't rescue a partner who has not been doubled". So is the hand worth a constructive 1 !S call? I don't really think so. And I don't want a !S lead. I probably don't all that much want !D lead either and anyway the hand is not remotely worth a call at the 2 level. Passing sounds just fine and dandy to me. Neither 1 !S nor 2 !D would be forcing, but partner would think I had something and that might not end well.”
PROBLEM F: Double.
Several viable choices on this one, which makes for a good MSC problem.
Six of our MSC solvers chose the double, so well done. They were: JCreech, DrAculeA, MSPhola, Hoki, and Aloha9 (and our anonymous victor).
PROBLEM G: 3 !D
The forcing 3 !D garnered the most votes. Double, though, hoping for a juicy penalty, was a close second. Personally, I thought it a close call, but we only had two doublers.
PROBLEM H: !C 8
Bobby Wolff: “ !C 2. No particular reason not to.”
Berkowitz’ pithy response to Wolff: “Other than the fact that BWS uses third-highest or lowest.” (It is not often pertinent, but occasionally one must look at the system). Continuing with, “I can see more winning scenarios for the higher club leads, and the scoring reflects this, along with the corresponding demotion of non-club leads . . . .”
A large majority of our IAC solvers saw it similarly, choosing one of several clubs.
A rather short summary this month, but plenty of time for others to chime in with opinions and complaints.
P.S. All complaints should be directed to Jim Creech!
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Once again I note that bidding for us regular folks won't cut it. I had two passes, which I think were reasonable, but which I even wrote were not likely to be good for the contest. Have to bid as the superpowers will bid and be slightly aggressive or you get left behind in this contest. Change those two passes and I'm a 780. oy! should, coulda, woulda.
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Once again I note that bidding for us regular folks won't cut it.
I have to disagree with you there Joe. Your score was 700. I have not taken the trouble to find out the top score among the experts. That is immaterial. The key thing is that the average score of the world class players was 697 which is practically identical to your score. The way the scores are marked is that top scores are awarded to how close your choices are to the expert consensus.
Now imagine that all these world experts had these hands in a competition and they were playing against other world experts who were equally good. Now let us constrain one of the variables and say that all these world experts are equally good in every way in their dummy play and they only differ in their bidding judgement. Then the experts who have the highest MSC score will be playing in the contracts that are the most popular and therefore will have no hope of winning the competition. Only those players with "outliers" will have any hope of winning. Some outliers will gain a big swing and some will lose a big swing. Your "outliers" are 2 50's. If both these bids turn out right at the table in this imagined competition then you will likely be the winner. If both turn out to be wrong then you may well come bottom and if one right and one wrong you will end up mid table close the the top MSC scorers.
My point is that only those who do not have top MSC scores will have any chance of winning a real competition.
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Good points Jack!
And the bridge magazines are filled with stories of world class players having disasters. I particularly like the one where Eddie Kantar and Miles Marshall got to a grand in AK tight opposite x or xx, and Eddie was thrilled that he was able to get a ruff in with a small trump. You take your victories where you can find them.