I have cleaned this up a bit.
Problem A: I will back up the auction:
Partner did not bid 2
, not yet. Now to the auction we are given in the problem. What should we make of first bidding 2
and then 2
?
I am going to assume partner has a
suit. First, an undiscussed artificial 2
is a good way to end in a 3-2 fit. Second, I have only two hearts, rho did not bid
over X and lho did not bid
over 1
. Neither argument is conclusive, but I will assume he has a
suit and, if he does not, he has some plan.
Still, just what could he have? Let's look at some hands.
Holding this, I double 1
and then, when partner responds 1
, I bid 2
. I am willing to bet that the hand belongs in
, or possibly NT, and I need a little but not much from partner to make 4
.
How about
With this, I X over 1
and when partner responds 1
I rebid 1NT. The hand is too strong for an immediate 1NT overcall, so this seems right.
So just when is it that after my X and partner's 1
, I decide to first bid 2
and then later bid 2
?
I'm thinking about that, but I am not yet sure. One reasonable interpretation is that I am saying "I have a big hand, I think the hand might belong in
even though you lack four cards support, but it also might belong elsewhere".
Now back to the South hand to choose a rebid over the 2
. I opt for 2NT.
At any rate, I think the interesting question is: Just when does partner first go to 2
and then to 2
? When would I do it? Not often, I am sure.