Chew the Fat! > Sleight of Hand
How would you bid this playing 2/1
Curls77:
Hi all
Alan (Cedar) mailed me this question...
(...) assume NS play 2/1.
North:
x x
A K Q x
A K J x x x
x
South, opener:
A Q J x x
x
x x
K Q J x x
and their bidding sequence (South bidding first) was
1S 2D
3C 3H
4C 5S
Pass
Questions:
1) Is south strong enough to bid 3C, does that bid shows extra values in opener's hand?
2) Should North bid 3D after 3C, allowing room for a 3H bid from South?
3) In the actual auction, could South bid 3N over the 3H bid, rather than go past 3N?
4) What do you think about 1S-2D ; 3C-3N?
I'll share link of this post with Alan, and I am sure here'll get very interesting answers.
Thanks!! :)
Curls77:
I moved topic again, hopefully someone will see and answer ;D
jcreech:
--- Quote from: Curls77 on April 17, 2022, 02:26:04 PM ---Hi all
Alan (Cedar) mailed me this question...
(...) assume NS play 2/1.
North:
x x
A K Q x
A K J x x x
x
South, opener:
A Q J x x
x
x x
K Q J x x
and their bidding sequence (South bidding first) was
1S 2D
3C 3H
4C 5S
Pass
Questions:
1) Is south strong enough to bid 3C, does that bid shows extra values in opener's hand?
2) Should North bid 3D after 3C, allowing room for a 3H bid from South?
3) In the actual auction, could South bid 3N over the 3H bid, rather than go past 3N?
4) What do you think about 1S-2D ; 3C-3N?
I'll share link of this post with Alan, and I am sure here'll get very interesting answers.
Thanks!! :)
--- End quote ---
Questions:
1) Is south strong enough to bid 3C, does that bid shows extra values in opener's hand? I think it is close. It is a bit light in actual HCPs, but in re-evaluated points considering shape and honors working together (e.g., KnR = 16.5) it is a toss-up; so I would not object to my partner making the bid, and I would make the bid myself in many circumstances. I would also keep in mind the state of the game/match when making a choice.
2) Should North bid 3D after 3C, allowing room for a 3H bid from South? On this auction, I think I like the 3H bid better because it is suggestive of extra values. However, it really depends on whether you want to emphasize the sixth diamond or heart strength. I have no objection to either choice.
3) In the actual auction, could South bid 3N over the 3H bid, rather than go past 3N? Yes. The 3H bid should show a concentration of values, which clears up the fourth suit for NT.
4) What do you think about 1S-2D ; 3C-3N? On the auction, I would regard it as a bit of a mastermind. You are looking at a 4-6 with 17 HCPs that initially re-evaluated to be much more (KnR = 21.9). The auction both sounds more and less promising - more because partner suggests extra strength too, but less because it sounds like a misfit. Looking at my own distribution and misfit, I can easily see partner having extra values due to distribution, so how much should I discount on that basis is still up in the air. 3NT eliminates any chance to clarify whether game is the limit or should we be in slam; that is a question I might want to explore with the North hand even if South had not suggested extras.
Personally, I would open 1C with the intent to rebid the spades twice. This is a treatment that Brian Platnick insisted upon the one time we played together. Now it will become easier to stop in 3NT, and not get overextended.
kenberg:
The auction will start 1 !S - 2 !D, no doubt about that. Now for the S rebid. If I had been dealt
A Q J x x
x
x x
K J x x x
I would have opened the bidding.
Well, KQJxx is a lot better than KJxxx.
It's not just 2 more highs, it is 2 well placed highs.
So 1 !S - 2 !D - 3 !C seens right
Now to the N hand . Despite all the highs, the hands are not fitting well. If we are thinking of slam, where? Partner has a lot of black cards. If partner has the !D Q things are looking up but why should he have that? And, looking for the moment at both hands even of we change !D xx in the S hand to !D Qx , slam is hardly a certainty on a spade lead.
I am inclined, as N, to bid 3 !D over 3 !C. If S now raises !D that will make me happy. If he bids 3 !S I might well settle for 3NT. Partner does not have to pass 3NT but with the hand he has, I imagine he will. Ne has already announced a lot of black cards, I have announced some good diamonds, but nobody has said "I can see where 12 tricks are likely to come from".
It is not impossible for 6 !D to make, but it needs a lot.
N has a lot in the reds, S in the blacks, who is going to set up what suit? Our only 8 card fit is in !D, we need the Q. Time to get out. Let's just get 9 tricks through brute force.
wackojack:
North:
x x
A K Q x
A K J x x x
x
South, opener:
A Q J x x
x
x x
K Q J x x
I am more in Ken's camp than Jim's on the best bidding. So I will answer the questions as given:
1) Is south strong enough to bid 3C, does that bid shows extra values in opener's hand?
With this 5-5 distribution you do not need any extra strength to make the high reverse into 3 !C. This is the advice given in the book "2 over 1 Game Force by Audrey Grant and Eric Rodwell"
So yes rebid 3 !C. This could also be showing a 4 card !C suit with extra strength.
2) Should North bid 3D after 3C, allowing room for a 3H bid from South?
1 !S - 2 !D
3 !C -?
Responder has a very strong hand and should look at slam possibilities. 3 !D I believe is the best bid as it is the most economical and shows a 6 card suit. So yes bid 3 !D.
3) In the actual auction, could South bid 3N over the 3H bid, rather than go past 3N?
If the bidding went:
1 !S 2 !D
3 !C 3 !H
?
The 4th suit bid of 3 !H says "Please tell me more about your hand partner?" So opener would bid 4 !C to show a definite 5-5 and no stop in hearts. Clearly this illustrates that the 4th suit bid of 3 !H was unsatisfactory.
4) What do you think about 1S-2D ; 3C-3N?
Responder has 17HCP. The strong 6 card !D suit makes it worth at least 19. So it is too strong to bid 3NT which would be showing a maximum of 15.
Ss best sequence I believe would be:
1 !S 2 !D
3 !C 3 !D
3 !H ?
Not an easy decision. Responder despite the very powerful hand can see the partial misfit and cannot assume that a slam will be on. Nevertheless, opener could have something like:
!S AKxxx
!H x
!D Qx
!C KQJxx
Where 6N or 6 !D is a virtual laydown and is entirely consistent with the earlier bidding. If responder bids 3N would opener make a slam move? I am not sure.
Opener would know that responder has something extra because he bid 3 !D before bidding 3NT on the principle of "slow arrival" . So maybe opener would now take out 3NT into 4 !D showing slam interest in !D s.
So back to the decision on the actual hands:
1 !S 2 !D
3 !C 3 !D
3 !H ?
What should 4NT by responder now mean? Keycard in !D s or quantitative in no trumps? You could argue that it must be quantitaive in no trumps since responder could fix the suit as !D s by bidding 4 !D. So with this fig leaf I say bid 4NT. There is still a safely run-out, because if partner takes it as !D keycard, he will bid 5 !C showing 1 and now you sign off in 5 !D.
Quoting JIM who says: "Personally, I would open 1C with the intent to rebid the spades twice. This is a treatment that Brian Platnick insisted upon the one time we played together. Now it will become easier to stop in 3NT, and not get overextended."
If you play it this way then you have difficuly showing hands with 6 clubs and 5 spades.
Navigation
[0] Message Index
[#] Next page
Go to full version