Your are dealt the following hand:
KJ5
QT5
KJ862
64
Partner opens 1
and you respond with a forcing 1NT, intending to show a 3-card limit-raise over partner’s rebid. But partner rebids 2
. Now what? Do you continue your plan to show a 3-card limit-raise by bidding 3
? Or do you revalue and, knowing of the 9 card fit, push to game? I’ve seen it done both ways and have done it myself.
Your initial plan intended to bring partner in on the decision. What has changed? Quite often, I’ve seen responders rebid 3
in this auction with invitational values but only two-card support. Which is fine. Lacking a better rebid and knowing partner has 6+
make 3
a relatively safe rebid. But partner does not know how many
you have in support. Is it two, or three?
Change your original hand to this:
KJ5
QT
KJ862
764
Assuming the same auction that begins 1
– 1NT – 2
do you rebid 3
showing invitational values? Or possibly 2NT denying
support, potentially missing a known (to you) 8-card fit?
There is a solution.
Simply expand your definition of an
Impossible 2 to include this auction. Therefore, when you have the first hand your rebid is 3
, showing a 3-card limit-raise--which is what you intended to show in the first place. A rebid of 2
—
Impossible!—denotes the 2-card limit-raise. Partner is now in a much better position to determine how to proceed.
I saw two hands recently that could have made use of this Impossible 2
. We all learn it as part of a forcing 1NT structure in 2/1 to show a good raise of opener’s
minor suit rebid. This is simply an extension. I learned this years ago in a Billy Miller lesson. Miller suggested that the doubleton
be Qx or better. You can tack on additional complexity over the 2
rebid to ask for and target shape and honor placement.
Definitely requires agreement. But it is simple. A cool gadget.