imps, nobody vul, partner deals and opens 1
.
I hold
643
AQ96
9
AK652
Pass on my right, 1
by me, 3
on my left, two passes to me
1
P 1
3
P P ?
I bid 4
. I see no reason why this should be forcing, and given that it isn't I think it is a really bad call. Here is partner's hand:
AQJ8
K62
42
QT87
She has an opening 1
call and she opened 1
. Nothing extra. And two small diamonds. She passed, which makes sense to me. If the spade finesse is working, unlikely but possible after the 3
preempt, we make 6. The spade finesse fails, but 5
is on ice. I'm the one with the stiff
and so I am the one who needs to get us to 5
.
If I had the weak doublton in diamonds I think my 4
would be reasonable, and then if she had the stiff
a raise to 5
would be easy. I think with my good values and the stiff in their suit, well place so that partner need not worry about over ruffs if it comes to that, I should just bite the bullet and bid 5
.
Ok, where does the luck come in? After partner' pass, RHO bid 4
, I hit it, it went for 500. Somebody up there likes me.
On to the question
Now should 4
be non-forcing? I think so. Suppose I have a hand such as
643
AQ962
9
AK65
On this hand we maybe belong in 4
and we maybe belong in 5
. If 4
were forcing I could use it to explore which is the right contract. But I don't think that is needed. Trump has not been set so I think 4
should be a game forcing bid, asking for help in choosing the correct suit. With her three hearts, she would have no trouble selecting hearts.
I can'r say that I am certain that everyone would take a 4
call that way, but it seems to make sense.