I edited the title to include "responses to 1C". Just how we respond to 1C has an impact on what happens next. If we frequently skip over
to bid a major then, after 1
-1M-1NT it is very possible responder will want to get out in 2
, and 2 way NMF allows this to happen. This occurred to me as soon as I learned of 2 way.
Now, thinking about XYZ, I have another thought. Consider 1
- 1
- 1M - 2
. As written, this demands that opener rebid 2
after which respnder will either pass or make some invitational call. But wait. This is different from 1
- 1
- 1NT - 2
, where opener surely has 2 or 3 diamonds. On 1
- 1
- 1M - 2
opener need not have any diamonds at all. Moreover, if we are playing in a walshie style that 1M call by opener showed at least a somewhat unbalanced hand. The 1 !G by responder allowed opener to skip over a major to rebid 1NTand his choice of bidding 1M rather than 1NT suggests unbalance. So now let's imagine opener with a 2=4=1=6 shape and a fairly minimum count. Does he really want to bid 2
and have partner pass? If partner is not going to pass the 2
then he is going to make some invitational call, maybe 2NT. I am not so sure we want to play this in any number of NT. So maybe after 1
- 1D, opener holding this 2=4=1=6 should just rebid 2
? Maybe so. But he could also bid the 1M and then, if partner bids 2
, just pass the 2
. Yes, responder said to bid 2
but opener does not think highly of playing 2
and he also does not plan on accepting any invitation that might be put forth over 2
, so he could just get out now.
Now this brings up the question of just how walshie we are. Here is BWS:
"In response to one club, with four of a major and four-plus diamonds, responder bids: one of the major with four diamonds, one diamond with invitational-plus values (otherwise one of the major) with five diamonds, one diamond with six diamonds."
This seems sensible Yes, it says that with a 1=4=6=2 shape you bid 1
over 1C. And yes, in theory partner might then bid 1NT even though he has four card support for your major. But will the really happen? Not often. We are assuming responder has six
and opener rebids 1NT. And, for there to be a problem, we also assume opener and responder have a 4-4 heart fit. So our side has two eight card fits, opener has minimum values and responder has a hand weak enough to sign off early. Are the opponents unconscious? Why are they not in this auction? Sure, it could happen but with the hyperactive modern bidding style I think the chances are low of the opponents not being in the auction when we have two 8+ fits and minimum count.
I am still thinking about just how the Walsh style responses influence XYZ and I very much welcome other thoughts. And I do think the NWS approach for responses is better than strict Walsh where you skip over a diamond suit of six to the AK to bid a heart suit of four to the 8.