These MSC problems are fun. In a weird way.

You're a sick man, Ken Berg! LOL 

FEBRUARY GUESSES:


PROBLEM A: 3 . Too much to pass and wait. I prefer 3 because it communicates that I have extras, shows nine of my cards rather than the six a spade rebid accomplishes, and denies four hearts. A pretty fair description of my hand.

PROBLEM B: 1 . This hand is big. Far too strong to make a non-forcing 3 rebid, where I may languish should partner choose to pass. The only forcing rebid, 3 , feels wrong with only three cards. With a long, strong major to retreat to I would feel more comfortable with a “fake-suit” jump-shift. Not here. So I am left with an esoteric but temporizing 1 . It has a huge problem; it’s not forcing! I see this as a transfer of sorts, delaying the pain of a decision until next round of bidding. I hope there is a next round of bidding.

PROBLEM C: (a3) 1 | 2 . As distasteful as the suit is for a hand I intend to reverse with, the other choices do not appeal to me. Generally, for marginal reverses, I prefer that my strength be in my long suits, which is a better description of the hand. So this is a mild distortion (one lie). However, it's a good description of my general strength, it conveys my shape accurately, and gives us the best chance of finding the right strain.

My second choice would be to open 1 and rebid 2NT (two lies).

PROBLEM D: 2 . Bid what I have. Not treating this as a two-suiter. With a void the auction is not over, so I should get another opportunity to introduce my suit, if appropriate.

PROBLEM E: 2 . Yes, I’m short a heart. I’m open to suggestions.

Second choice is Pass (yuck!).

PROBLEM F: 2NT. Really just a guess. East has few values and is short in diamonds. Partner and East have a minimum of eight hearts between them, maybe more, so partner hopefully has hearts stopped.

[Added] Because opener must have at least four diamonds (he did not support responder), East probably has at most a stiff diamond. East probably also has almost no values. Maybe 5 HCP or so? Something like xxx KQxxx x xxxx ? Do we have game?

I think Pass will be a popular solver choice as well as a viable choice for the BWS panel. But I think I stick with my 2NT.

Hardest of the set so far. This one may change . . .

PROBLEM G: 3 . Partner has very little, only a few HCP. For this reason a double, while seemingly flexible, is not on my radar. I’ll bid what I have, more clubs.

Second choice (I think it’s close) is pass.

PROBLEM H: T. [Added] See my comments downthread. I'm now set on a spade lead. I like the ten best. Small (the 4) is also okay. But I like the ten.

Second choice: 7. No particular reason. This looks quite normal, standard, and boring.

Second Third choice is the J.

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Still some time before I must commit. I feel good enough about most of these to just go with it, but a couple (like the lead problem) are a complete guess and I may change my mind.

I see the auction going:
1NT   - 2
2    - 3
3    - 4NT (3!H agrees to , and shows A or K )
5    - 6NT (2 keycards w/o Q)

I count 33-35 HCPs with two potential suits as sources of tricks, partner may also have a source of tricks.  The cue bid plus all of the key cards make me willing to try NT over .  I have a potential double stop in all suits, and if partner does not have the K, then those points my be elsewhere to bolster enough total tricks.  I do not envision going for the grand in under any circumstances without a bidding breakdown.

This. Including all the comments.

I do not have the tools to find a grand.

I tried finding something from the UK or the EU or some such about responding to overcalls. I found something in Canada, so at least it's outside the US, but I could not find anything from Jack's side of the Atlantic.

I found this: Standard English Modern Acol. It's a pdf of the Acol system.

In Section C: Defensive Bidding, 1.2.4, on page 21 it states:
To bid a new suit opposite an overcall you need a good suit – six cards or five very good ones; the bid is encouraging but not forcing, so partner may leave you to play in your suit.  At the one level you should have 8 + HCP to bid a new suit, at the two level 10+ HCP.  A change of suit with a jump is forcing. Don’t respond just because you don’t like overcaller’s suit.
But I don't know Acol. And I cannot comment on the accuracy of these system notes. However, it was authored by John Pain, the manager of the EBU Education Department, so should carry some weight.

Using this method, and any other method I've seen here in the U.S., the 1 advance with only four cards would not occur to me.

As with any methods, the key is to be on the same page as partner. My personal preference, if playing a "simple" system is to play new suits by advancer after a one-level overcall as non-forcing. New suits after 2-level overcalls as forcing. This is what I played with my last serious partner several years ago. Someday I'll dive into transfer advances (not recommended for a pickup partnership), but that's another discussion altogether.

2 is the call. Not 1 .

Your 4-level decision is predicated on the forcing/non-forcing nature of 1 , and then, what you expect your partner to be be showing.

If non-forcing, I would expect 5+ spades.

Fortunately, in your auction, you both assumed forcing.

I'll get the ball rolling with a problem that to me is a no-brainer. [Added] Upon further review, I shouldn't call it a no-brainer. There are several bad choices--and no good ones.

PROBLEM C:

I choose (a3) which is to open 1 and reverse to 2 . As distasteful as the suit is for a hand I intend to reverse with, the other choices do not appeal to me. Generally, for marginal reverses, I prefer that my strength be in my long suits, which is a better description of the hand. So this is a mild distortion (one lie). However, it's a good description of my general strength, it conveys my shape accurately, and gives us the best chance of finding the right strain. 

My second choice would be to open 1 and rebid 2NT (two lies).

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[Added] It's IMPs and we're vulnerable. That alone suggests aggression, so 1 - 1 - 1NT (showing 12-14) would be criminal.

What about 1 - 1 - 2 ? It's still a reverse. Why manufacture a reverse into a three card suit (sometimes necessary) when there is a perfectly good four card suit? I do not understand this as a possible answer.

The reverse to 2 ? Discussed above. Currently the runaway winner of those who have submitted--and for good reason.

What about 1 - 1 - 2NT? Initially my second choice. Still is. But I am taking a much closer look at this. It obviously falls outside the shape requirements because of the stiff. But the range is very close. The KnR for this hand is 17.05, so it's close to the 18 a 2NT rebid promises. This one is looking more and more attractive to me:
     1) I know spades are covered, or at least hope they are.
     2) The point range is close. Very close.
     3) The club suit looks more no-trumpy once partner responded with one spade.
     4) Half my strength is in a short suit, which is code for "bid notrump."

Opening 1 ? Why? What's the point? I don't get this one either.

Open 1 ? Not for me, but this one actually has merit. Maybe in third seat, but not first.

Finally, what about opening 1NT? Okay, it's in range, 15-17. But a stiff 2? Nope.

Still one day to decide. But I am teetering on the edge on this one. It's close

Happy New Year!

I agree that the double by opener is showing four hearts. Should be longer clubs. A hand strong enough to compete further. As far as a redouble by overcaller showing a doubleton top honor, I’ve never heard of that. Maybe you’re thinking of a Rosenkranz Redouble? If so, I believe it’s used only by advancer.

Initially, partner’s 1 advance can show any number of spades, but will often be five-plus. One reason for this is that the 1 overcall promises a minimum of five, so yes, you’re trying to improve the contract. Since a 1 advance is not forcing, if you don’t have support it’s often best to just pass.

As far as the auction Poco discussed: 1 – 1 – 1 is non-forcing because opener has limited his hand. Opener’s 1 rebid shows no more than 17 HCP (or a bad 18). Keep in mind that this means that a 1 rebid is wide-ranging, from about 11 to 17 or so. If opener has a balanced 15-17, he opens 1NT. If opener has a balanced 18-19, he rebids 2NT (even with a four-card major). If opener has an unbalanced hand, worth a jump to 2 , he shows a good 18+ (a jump-shift). Note: the jump makes 2 a jump-shift, it is not a reverse. While one may quibble about the ranges I’ve listed, they are within a point of being spot on in Standard American or 2/1 bidding using a strong notrump. Also, since the 1 rebid limits opener's hand to 17 or so, why would you want responder to be "forced" to bid again with say KJxx - xxxx - Jxxxx - --? Will a one-level suit rebid by opener often be passed by responder? No. But since opener has limited his hand, and responder can do the math, it's responder who gets to choose whether to go on. In other words . . . 1 is not forcing. 
 
Back to your auction. I think your inferences about shape around the table to be pretty good. But my partner having 4-4 in the majors would be highly unlikely. You don’t bid your suits in reverse order with both majors if 4-4. It’s. just. not. done. So partner should have five spades for the 1 advance. Ken also mentioned his confusion about why partner would bid 1 with 4-4 majors. I agree, I do not see a reason for it other than maybe if the hearts were 5432, which looks a lot like a three card suit! 

As far as what I bid next?

Because none of my partner’s calls were forcing, pass would cross my mind. But partner is now showing some sort of delayed support (another reason why 1 must show 5+) with invitational values. I probably bid 4 to show the extra diamond and, hopefully, deny four spades.