Assume 2/1 but of course that's not the full story. Let's consider various agreements within the context of 2/1. I will first give just your hand and ask a few questions, and then give both hands.
It's matchpoints, vul versus noon-vul, Lho deals and passes, partner opens 1
, Rho passes. You hold:
A82
J4
AKT4
KQJ8
Option 1: You are playing in the Walsh style, you bid 1
and partner bids 1NT. Thus he has a reasonably balanced 12-14 count.
Option 2: Non-Walsh: You bid 1
and partner bids 1 M. Playing non-Walsh, partner usually bids his major over 1
- 1
unless he is four triple three.
Option 3: You decide that the strength warrants an immediate inverted 2
even though you have only four cards. Partner rebids 2NT, not forcing.
Option 4: You decide that the strength warrants an immediate inverted 2
even though you have only four cards. Partner rebids 2NT, played as presumed natural one round force.
I will give the other hand below, but you might fist think of how happy you are so far and what you might do next.
Ok, here are the two hands
J63
AKT3
Q5
AT32
A82
J4
AKT4
KQJ8
Ok, 32 hcps between you and a club fit. Do you wish to be in slam or not, and if so do you want to be in 6
or 6NT? And how to you get to wherever you think you should be?
For example, after 1
- 1
- 1NT (Walsh), if you bid 4NT (nvitational) partner accepts and bids 6NT, does he not? If he instead bids 6
, pass or correct, you could pass but would he? It seems 6
would be for something like a 3=3=2=5 shape.
But maybe, at one extreme, you are content with 6NT. Or, at the other extreme, after 1
- 1
- 1NT you just settle for 3NT.
But, if you think 6
is a decent contract, how do you get there?
The general idea is: How to get where, using any of the various agreements mentioned. Or any other system.
We do have 32 highs, a 4-4 club fit, and a little shape. A club slam should not be crazy. although I would not say it is on ice. And a NT slam is not hopeless, but it seems a bit iffy.
So?