In the last 24 hours I have encountered three hands where there was a potential for confusion about the meaning of an auction after a 1NT call. In each case I have played it to have different meanings when I have played with different partners, so i believe it is safe to say that there is ambiguity if there has not been discussion. Here are the three auctions, which I give up to the point of ambiguity:
A. This is from the MSC. It is a contested auction, starting on my right with 1
and I overcall 1NT:
1
- 1NT - 2
- 2
Ok Partner could have bid 2
, if that would be a transfer to
. Assuming 2
is natural then I ask: What would 2
have been? Or perhaps 2
shows both spades and diamonds, whereas he would have just transferred if he had spades only? This is unlikely, as surely in this contest format they would have said so. And, btw, what would a double of 2
have meant? Had I opened 1 NT and then Lho bid 2
I expect X to be Stayman (unless 2
showed both majors). And I would expect that to be the case here, if partner had doubled 2
. But now that I see that, on this auction, we do not seem to be using 2
as a transfer to
, I have to wonder whether a double of 2
is still being played as Stayman.
So the general question can be put:
After the contested auction begins 1
- 1NT - 2
, what are the meanings of the various bids by fourth hand?
I am a strong believer in going to a reliable source for answers. Reinventing the wheel gets tiresome, especially if it means inventing a different wheel with each partner. I would be happy to just do it as Mike Lawrence says or do it as Larry Cohen says or whatever, as long as it is written down.
B. This was from yesterday's indy. I opened 1NT, Lho overcalled a DONT 2
, partner doubled, Rho bid 2
. What is 2
?
This one is easier to find references for. Larry Cohen, a popularizer of DONT (and maybe a co-inventor with Bergen of the convention, I'm not sure), says it shows
. Without the double, 2
asks for pass or correct, depending on the DONTer's second suit. With the X, then XX asks for the second suit, and 2
shows hearts.
This worked out miraculously well for us. I had opened 1 NT on a 5=3=2=3 shape, I decided to chance that 2
was intended to ask for a second suit and that Lho's second suit was probably
so I bid 2
which pard raised to 4, making 7. I could have been held to 5 if Lho had led the stiff
but s/he chose a
after which I will make 12 tricks at least.
But the point here is what the 2
call should mean after the X. I say go with Cohen.
C. This is an uncontested auction from yesterday's indy;
1NT - 2
(correction, thanks)
2
- 4
.
Ok, what's 4
? I have played that it shows a splinter, I have played that it is key card blackwood. Bridge World Standard says "four clubs is a key-card-ask if opener showed a major, otherwise shows four=six in the majors" but splinter is common and I play it that way with some.
Partner indeed intended this as a splinter but I was uncertain of just how to take it. We landed on our feet, through luck rather than any good choices on my part.
I intend the above as a congenial and realistic presentation of ambiguity. Responses to these and other similar problems are very welcome.