A9542
A108
93
A83
8
J10763
KQ94
732
AKJ1076
854
Q9 !C106
KQ
J65
Q2
KJ7542
As you can see 4
at our table is doomed.
At the other table the bidding went:
1
- (dbl) (i) - (rdbl) (ii) - 1
2
- (2
) - (3
) (iii) - p
3NT all pass
I see opening 1
as routine. You just cannot pass a 12 count with a 6 card suit no matter if you devalue KQ and Q2.
(i) imo overcall then double is more precise than double then bid
if partner takes out into
.
(ii) Not to my taste. Would prefer 1
forcing. OR if playing transfers after double bid 1
.
(iii) I think the message intended was bid 3NT with a
guard. Maybe the redouble muddied that message.
West led the A
and East followed suit with the 8. I know this pair play udca, but not sure if the 8 was intended as a discourage or a count signal showing 1 or 3 !Ds.
If you play A asks attitude and King asks count. OR the other way round for that matter then maybe there is still some doubt. Let us say that the Ace was asking partner for a count signal.
Then would you take the chance that partner has 3 and continue or would you decide that South would be mad to bid 3NT with
Q2 and decide that South had Q542? Therefore there was a maybe a chance to get partner in with
.
West decided on the latter and switched to K
and so South wrapped up the contract. 14 imps gone
A word on
Quote:
What if the opponents have bid 2 suits?
Now, things change. When there are 2 suits to cue-bid on the 3-level, you should bid the one you do have stopped. The cue-bid is "telling" -- not "asking."
Unquote. Err
. In this position it just looks wrong to cue 3
and yet if a direct 3N says I have stops in both opps suits and a cue of one of opps 2 suits says I have a stop in this suit logic says that I should have cued 3
.